Is Spinoza’s attempt to reconcile philosophy and religion successful?Why? If not, why not?

Is Spinoza’s attempt to reconcile philosophy and religion successful?If so, why? If not, why not?

Sources:

Spinoza, Theologico-Political Treatise, chapters 14 and 15.

Daniel Garber,  ‘Should Spinoza have published his Philosophy?’ in Charlie Huenemann ed., Interpreting Spinoza: Critical Essays (Cambridge University Press, 2008), 166-87.

Michael Rosenthal, ‘Spinoza’s Dogmas of the Universal Faith and the Problem of Religion’,  Philosophy and Theology 13.1 (2001), 53-72.

Mogens Laerke,  Spinoza and the Freedom of Philosophising, chapter 9.

Andrea Sangiacomo, Spinoza on Reasons, Passions and the Supreme Good, Chapter 3.

I’d like to argue that Spinoza’s argument is problematic and paradoxical. Since his claim that ‘religion and philosophy do not conflict’ is either a philosophical argument itself or religious imagination as he calls it, so either way it’s a paradox and one would he the handmaid of the other.